PREVIOUS ANSC 1000 EXAMS

ANSC 1000 Name______________________________
Lab Final

Breed identification slides.

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IDENTIFY THE PARTS OF ANIMALS indicated by the numbers given below. A separate
sheet of pictures will be given to you. Do not write on the pictures.

(Pictures of animals are provided on which the parts are identified by numbers.
Students write the name of the parts asked to identify. For example, you may be
asked to identify part number 22 on the beef or 17 on the pig. You will be asked
to identify approximately 30 parts.)

PROBLEMS: Show all work and circle your answer for full credit. Do your work
in a neat and orderly manner such that we can follow your methods.
Carry all answers to 2 decimal places (for example, 2.43 or 1.70).
Units must be included with your answer.

1. (4 pts) A pig consumed 6 lb. of feed per day while gaining 175 lb in 100 days.
A) What is the ADG? (ANS: 1.75 lb/day)

B) What is the feed efficiency? (ANS: 3.43 lb feed/lb gain)

2. (4 pts) You want to feed a lamb from 60 lb. to 120 lb. If you expect a feed
efficiency of 6:

A) How many lb. of corn do you need to buy for mixing a diet that contains 45%
corn? (ANS: 162 lb corn)

B) How many bushels of corn would you need to buy (56 lb/bu)? (ANS: 2.89 bu)

3. (4 pts) You purchased 75 feeder pigs averaging 55 lb. for $3820.00.

A) How much did you pay per pig? (ANS: $50.93 per pig)

B) How much did you pay per cwt? (ANS: $92.61/cwt)

4. (4 pts) Referring to question 3, if all other costs totaled $2750.00 and
only 72 pigs survived until market (220 lb.):
A) How much do you need to sell each pig for to break even? (ANS: $91.25/pig)

B) What price per cwt would you have to sell at to break even? (ANS: $41.48/cwt)

5. (4 pts) Comparing your answers for #3 and #4:

A) Is there a positive or negative margin? (Negative)

B) What is the margin? (ANS: -$51.13/cwt)

6. (6 pts) You sold the pigs in #3 and #4 for $46/cwt:

A) What was your profit per pig? (ANS: $9.95/pig)

B) Using the actual selling price, what could you have paid for the
feeder pigs (in $/cwt) and still break even? (ANS: $109.97/cwt or $110/cwt)

7. (2 pts) If the ADG of steers in the feedlot is 2.6 and they consume 2100 lb.
of feed in 110 days what is their feed efficiency? (ANS: 7.34 lb feed/lb gain)

8. (2 pts) If a lamb gains .5 lb. per day and has a feed efficiency of 6, how
much feed does it consume per day? (ANS: 3 lb feed/day)

PLEASE CIRCLE YOUR ANSWERS FOR THE PROBLEMS.
COMPUTER GRADED. One answer per question. Erase mistakes completely.

1. Dairy cattle type score is based on:
A. Appearance
B. Dairy Character
C. Milk production
D. All of the above
E. Only A and B

2. How many pounds of feed does a dairy cow eat to produce 1 pound of milk?
A. 1 or less B. 2.8 C. 3.5 D. 6-7 E. 8-10

3. The calving interval in dairy cows is ? months.
A. 10.4 B. 12 C. 13.1 D. 14.5 E. 15

4. A high type score is a good indicator of ? .
A. milk fat production
B. longevity within the herd
C. milk production
D. femininity
E. Both B and C

5. Both of the cows in the dairy lab were "dry cows." What does this term mean?
A. That she has not had her 1st calf
B. That she has mastitis
C. A non-lactating animal
D. A lactating animal
E. She has a low type score

6. There is a metabolic disorder in dairy cattle that is a result of too much
grain or not enough roughage being in the diet. What is this nutritional
problem called?
A. fat cow syndrome
B. ketosis
C. mastitis
D. milk fat depression
E. milk fever

7. Dairy cattle must consume large amounts of forage to produce milk. What is/are
the indicator(s) of body capacity?
A. depth of heart girth
B. deep, wide body
C. width of chest floor
D. well-sprung ribs
E. all of the above

8. Which of the following would be an unfavorable characteristic of udder quality?
A. high, wide and strong rear udder attachment
B. bottom of udder is level with cow's underline
C. evenly balanced
D. quartered udder
E. supported well above the hocks

9. DHIA stands for what dairy organization?
A. Dairy Herd Inseminators of Alabama
B. Dairy Herd Improvement Association
C. Dairy Herd Improvers Association
D. Dairy Herdsmen Improvement Association
E. None of the above

10. In dairy cows, the importance of the thurl is for
A. body capacity for forages
B. soundness
C. strong udder attachment
D. reproduction
E. proper fitting of milking machines

11. Photographs or drawings are used by what breed association(s) as a means of
permanent identification?
A. Ayrshire
B. Guernsey
C. Holstein
D. All of the above.
E. both A and C

12. Approximately how many lactations does the average dairy cow remain in the
milking herd before she is culled and sold?
A. 3.5 B. 4.0 C. 4.5 D. 5.0 E. 5.5

13. Which term below is common and unique to dairy cattle?
A. angularity
B. milking ability
C. femininity
D. body capacity
E. spring of rib

14. Which breed of dairy cow is from Scotland and is known for poor disposition?
A. Ayrshire
B. Brown Swiss
C. Guernsey
D. Holstein
E. Jersey

15. Which dairy breed is the most popular?
A. Ayrshire
B. Brown Swiss
C. Guernsey
D. Holstein
E. Jersey

16. Which dairy breed is the highest producing?
A. Ayrshire
B. Brown Swiss
C. Guernsey
D. Holstein
E. Jersey

17. Which dairy breed produces milk with the highest % butterfat?
A. Ayrshire
B. Brown Swiss
C. Guernsey
D. Holstein
E. Jersey

18. Which is the second most popular dairy breed?
A. Ayrshire
B. Brown Swiss
C. Guernsey
D. Holstein
E. Jersey

19. Which dairy breed is known for "yellow milk"?
A. Ayrshire
B. Brown Swiss
C. Guernsey
D. Holstein
E. Jersey

20. The highest milk producing dairy breed averages yearly approximately ? lbs
of milk?
A. 5,000
B. 10,000
C. 20,000
D. 25,000

21. At what age does the horse's temporary corner incisors erupt?
A. 6 days
B. 6 weeks
C. 6 months
D. 6 years

22. How tall in inches is a horse that is 15.1 hands?
A. 51
B. 60.1
C. 60.4
D. 61
E. It is not a horse because it is less than 15.2 hands.

23. When comparing the rear quarters of Quarter Horses and Thoroughbreds
A. QH's tend to be shaped like an inverted apple
B. Thoroughbreds tend to be shaped like an inverted pear
C. Thoroughbreds have little, if any, muscling in their rear quarters
D. a & b
E. a & c

24. You notice that a horse is splay footed in front. As he walks toward you
he will
A. step straight ahead with his feet.
B. throw his feet to the outside.
C. throw his feet to the inside, sometimes clipping the opposite leg.

25. An imaginary line is dropped from the point of the buttock to the ground.
As viewed from the side, the entire rear leg is a little forward of the
line but parallel with the line. The horse is
A. correct in his leg set.
B. sickle hocked.
C. weak in his pasterns.
D. post legged.
E. base narrow.

26. A line is dropped from the top of the shoulders to the ground (side view).
The line passes through the middle of the leg and more than half of the
knee is on the rear side (behind) of the line. This horse is
A. correct in his leg set.
B. calf-kneed.
C. buck-kneed.
D. knock-kneed.
E. fine boned.

27. The line in the previous question should ? before striking the ground.
A. pass just to the rear of the hoof
B. pass through the front quarter of the hoof
C. pass through the rear quarter of the hoof
D. pass through the middle of the hoof

28. To view a horse from the front to check for feet and leg soundness, you would
drop an imaginary line from the
A. top of the withers.
B. top of the shoulder.
C. elbow.
D. point of the shoulder.
E. top of the neck.

29. Referring to the previous question, if the legs were mostly inside the
imaginary line, the horse would be
A. correct in his leg set.
B. knock-kneed.
C. base narrow.
D. pigeon-toed.
E. fine boned.

30. A bacterial infection of the hoof usually picked up around dirty areas of
the barn is called ? .
A. Founder B. Hoof rot C. Thrush D. Laminitis

31. Founder is a condition that affects the ? .
A. sole B. frog C. cleft of the frog D. white line
E. both B and C

32. Cleaning the hoof frequently will be effective in preventing founder.
A. True B. False

For questions 33 through 37. Refer to the drawing of the horse's hoof below
and use the answers listed.

A. Bars
B. White line
C. Frog
D. Bulb of the heal

A. Cleft of the frog
B. Sole
C. Commissure
D. Branch of the sole E. Hoof wall

33. Number 8 on the drawing is ? .
34. Number 2 on the drawing is ? .
35. Number 9 on the drawing is ? .
36. Number 1 on the drawing is ? .
37. Number 3 on the drawing is ? .

38. Which is the most popular breed of horse?
A. Arabian
B. Thoroughbred
C. Tennessee Walking Horse
D. American Quarter Horse
E. Appaloosa

39. Which breed was developed by the Nez Perce Indians and has stripped hooves?
A. American Saddlebred
B. Paint/Pinto
C. Standardbred
D. Morgan
E. Appaloosa

40. Which breed has a natural overstride and has experienced Federal
intervention because of "training techniques?"
A. Appaloosa
B. Thoroughbred
C. Tennessee Walking Horse
D. American Saddlebred
E. Palomino

41. Which breed of horse would typically be used for endurance (long-distance)
racing?
A. Arabian
B. Thoroughbred
C. Standardbred
D. American Quarter Horse
E. Appaloosa

42. Which breed of horse is based upon color AND can be double registered.
A. Standardbred
B. Palomino
C. American Quarter Horse
D. Appaloosa
E. Paint/Pinto

43. Which breed was developed from Thoroughbred as well as other breeds and is
used for harness racing?
A. Arabian
B. Thoroughbred
C. Standardbred
D. American Quarter Horse
E. Appaloosa

44. Which breed of horse would typically be used for short-distance racing?
A. Arabian
B. Thoroughbred
C. Standardbred
D. American Quarter Horse
E. Appaloosa

45. Which is the oldest breed of horse?
A. Thoroughbred
B. Quarter Horse
C. Appaloosa
D. Morgan
E. Arabian

46. Which of the following is not a quality grade for a young carcass
(A and B maturity)?
A. choice B. commercial C. standard D. select E. prime

47. Inspection is mandatory.
A. true B. false

48. Quality grading is mandatory.
A. true B. false

49. The break point between young (A and B maturity) carcasses and mature
(C, D, or E) carcasses is ? months of age.
A. 12 B. 18 C. 30 D. 42 E. 50

50. A beef carcass has a "kidney-shaped" muscle above the aitch bone, smooth
cod/udder fat, and lacks thickness through the chuck and neck. It is
probably the carcass of a
A. heifer B. bullock C. bull D. steer

51. The lumbar vertebrae are separated by non-ossified cartilage and the
ribs are pinkish colored. This carcass is
A. A or B maturity.
B. C, D, or E maturity.
C. probably going to be condemned.
D. not properly aged.
E. either a heifer or a steer.

52. Quality grade in a beef carcass is based mainly on
A. backfat thickness and loin eye area
B. carcass weight and LEA
C. marbling and LEA
D. marbling and maturity
E. maturity and backfat thickness

53. If you bought half of a 700-lb. carcass and had it cut and wrapped,
how many pounds of meat would you take home?
A. 210 B. 245 C. 294 D. 420 E. 490

54. What are the "4 lean cuts" used to determine yield grade?
A. round, loin, rib, chuck
B. round, short loin, sirloin, chuck
C. ham, loin, blade shoulder, arm shoulder
D. ham, loin, rib, shoulder

55. Using the same answer choices for the previous question, what are
the "4 retail cuts" used to determine yield grade?

56. In beef carcasses, the preliminary yield grade is based on
A. loin eye area
B. backfat thickness
C. marbling
D. maturity
E. carcass weight

57. A 600-lb. carcass is expected to have a (an) ? square inch loin eye,
on the average.
A. 4.5 B. 9 C. 11 D. 12 E. 14

58. Loin eye area on a beef carcass is measured between the ? and ? ribs.
A. 1,2 B. 5,6 C. 8,9 D. 10,11 E. 12,13

59. Between which two ribs is LEA determined on a pork carcass?
A. 1,2 B. 5,6 C. 8,9 D. 10,11 E. 12,13

60. The expected LEA on a beef carcass is 11.5 square inches. The measured
LEA is 13 square inches. What adjustment would you make in the preliminary
yield grade?
A. to a lower number
B. to a higher number
C. No adjustment is necessary.

61. On which factors are yield grades for pork carcasses based?
A. backfat, LEA, KPH fat, carcass weight
B. acceptable or unacceptable
C. backfat and LEA
D. backfat and degree of muscling
E. marbling and maturity

62. Where is the backfat measurement on a pork carcass taken?
A. between the 12 and 13 ribs
B. between the 10 and 11 ribs
C. above the last rib
D. above the last lumbar vertebrae
E. above the shoulder

63. The bones that stick up above the thoracic (rib) vertebrae are
called ? bones.
A. rib B. lumbar C. ergot D. chine E. back

64. The back of a live hog is called the ? on the pork carcass.
A. back B. rib C. loin D. sirloin E. blade shoulder

65. The back of a live steer is called the ? on the beef carcass.
A. back B. rib C. loin D. short loin E. chine

66. All yield grade 3 carcasses are also USDA Choice carcasses.
A. true B. false

67. Age (maturity) of a beef carcass is determined by evaluating bones for
A. degree of ossification
B. presence of cartilage
C. shape and color
D. All of the above.
E. Only A and B.

68. In general, ossification occurs from the
A. rear towards the front
B. front towards the rear
C. middle in both directions
D. front and rear toward the middle

69. Meat tenderness is most closely related to which factor?
A. marbling B. maturity C. yield grade

70. A pork carcass weighs 163 lb. What is the best estimate of live weight
of the hog prior to slaughter?
A. 210 lb. B. 220 lb. C. 230 lb. D. 250 lb. E. 270 lb.

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